QUESTION: A 49-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the ED with one day of vomiting and diarrhea. The patient states that his whole family is sick with the same illness. You administer an antiemetic and orally rehydrate the patient. He feels much better and is ready to be discharged. The nurse obtains vital signs prior to discharge that reveals a blood pressure of 175/95 mm Hg.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next steps in management?

A. Discharge the patient
B. Obtain an ECG
C. Order a CBC
D. Order a urine drug screen




# Mini Board Review: March 2013 EditionDiane Gilliland 2013-03-07 20:37
Thank you for putting together the questions for the mini board review. I find them very helpful!
# Mini Board reviewDr Zahn 2013-03-10 09:37
Good review....but alot of medical info, very specific...not known when you are out for years in practice.
# MDSam Morale 2013-03-11 17:06
Thanks for your effort. Nice to review uncommon diseases to keep us up to speed. It is amazing how many diseases, pathogens etc... have had their names changed : Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) (formerly referred to as Wegener’s granulomatosis) .
# Robert Ditrolio 2013-03-12 17:10
Excellent review questions. Please keep them coming in future issues!

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